IELTS Listening

Welcome to IELTS Listening Beginner's Lessons

The Listening Test is common for both Academic and General Training module. The objective of these lessons is to familiarize you with all the features of IELTS Listening and develop your listening skills to acquire a good score.

The comprehensive lessons include various components.

The components are:

1) Introduction to question types

2) Common strategies for solving IELTS Listening

3) Important tips for transferring answers on the answer sheet

4) Approach to individual question types

For each question type, there is a separate folder in which you will find strategies to solve that particular question. It is followed by exercises for practice.

In some exercises, the audios are shorter than in the actual IELTS test to focus on the required strategies, whereas some audios are of similar length to the actual IELTS Listening test for real time experience. Most questions follow the actual IELTS pattern.

Each Practice exercise has a detailed answer key.

So, BEST WISHES for your IELTS practice with Beginner’s Lessons !!!

IELTS Listening Test has a total of 40 questions which is divided into four sections, each is managed individually and the audio is played once only.

The test is of about 30 minutes + 10 minutes of transfer time on the Paper-based IELTS and 2 minutes for the Computer-delivered IELTS.

The first two sections are based on general context and section 3 is in an academic or campus situation and section 4 is a lecture on an academic subject.

You must be ready to listen to the instructions first and then answer the questions.

In IELTS listening, there are different types of questions.

The question patterns are as below:

  1. Multiple choice questions
  2. Map/Diagram completion questions
  3. Form/Chart/table/notes completion questions
  4. Summary completion questions
  5. Process/ Flow Chart completion questions
  6. Sentence completion questions
  7. Short-Answer questions
  8. List selection questions
  9. Matching questions/Classification questions

The exercises will be based on the above-mentioned question types.

Question types in IELTS Listening

(Note: The questions on this page are given as examples. You cannot attempt them here as the audio tracks are not provided.)

1) Multiple Choice Questions

In this task, candidates are required to select one correct answer from a given list of options. The questions are in the order of the information in the listening track, but options are not necessarily in order.

Skills tested: understanding specific points or an overall understanding of the main points from the listening track.

Example:

Questions 1-2

Choose the correct letter A, B or C.

1 Where does the girl live?

A in the new town

B in the outskirts

C in the main city centre

2 How can the girl reach the center?

A by cycle

B by private transport

C by bus

2) Diagram Completion/ Map labelling

The candidates are required to label a diagram which is described in the listening track. The answers are always in the order of the information.

Skills tested: relating a diagram with its description, understanding a layout and identifying appropriate words mainly for space and directions.

Example:

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 1-3.

1 A place to buy tickets_____

2 A place to seek help from_______

3 A place to change clothes_______

3) Form/Chart/table/notes completion questions

In this task. the candidates are required to complete a form/ chart/ table/ notes.

Skills tested: understanding the context, understanding details and/or main ideas, identifying appropriate words/ numbers, spelling as well as grammar.

Example:

Complete the form below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Example

The girl wants to know about: holiday  packages

                ROWLEY INTERNATIONAL


Destination selected: 1 ________

Caller’s name: 2  ________

Holiday Package chosen: 4 nights 5 days

Total number of travellers: 3 ________

Hotel Type( Rating): 4 ________

Complete the table.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Types of paints

Advantage

Disadvantage

Acrylics

dry quickly

 

Water colours

They are harmless to 1_____

can be washed off easily

Oil paint

can be preserved for a long period

takes time

2_____

Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Breed: Bullmastiff

Given Name: 1 _____

How old is the pet? About 2 ________

General comments about pet’s nature:

  • 3 ________
  • responds to training
  • loving and obedient
  • 4 ________

4) Summary completion

In this task. the candidates are required to complete a summary of all or part of the information spoken.

Skills tested: understanding details and/or main ideas, identifying appropriate words in respect of meaning as well as grammar.

Example:

Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Scuba divers could encounter some unexpected risks as they explore the water world. The life-threatening condition called Bends occurs when a diver emerges out of the water very 1___. This condition is also known as Decompression Sickness. Bends can affect the diver’s vital organs such as the

heart, lungs or brain and may even lead to 2___Although bends are a rare occurrence, the divers can minimise the chances with adequate 3____

5) Flow-Chart Completion/Process

In this task, the candidates are required to complete a process or a flowchart.The instruction specifies the maximum number of words to be used.

Skills tested: understanding order or sequence of information

Example:

Complete the flowchart below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each

6) Sentence completion

In this task, sentences are to be completed by filling in the blanks with words and/or a number.

The sentences are in the order of the information.

Skills tested: understanding detail or specific information

Example:

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

1 Louis was inspired by the war-time communication system____

2 Using 12 dots, this system was invented by an officer in the___army.

7) Short-answer Questions

The candidates are required to answer questions for specific information. The questions are in the order of information.

Skills tested: identifying specific information

Example:

Answer the question below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

1 Where can the woman give her feedback?

_________

2 What does the woman think about the service?

__________

8) List selection

In this task, candidates are required to select multiple correct answers (according to the instructions) from a given list of options. The questions are in the order of the information but options are not necessarily in order.

Skills tested: understanding specific information such as categories/opinions/features

Example:

Choose TWO letters, A-D.

Which TWO of the following does Professor Malcolm advise Nathan for his article?

A. Draw a couple of more illustrations instead of taking any from the internet.

B . Download an irrelevant illustration from the internet.

C . Replace the illustration.

D . Delete a particular piece of the text.

9) Matching

In this task, a list of names or letters (in A, B or C form), is provided (the given options can be in the form of name of person/time/place etc.). The candidates must match/recognise information such as categories/opinions/features related to the speakers/objects.

The questions will be in order of information but the option will be in random order. There may be more questions than the names/options, so some options can be used more than once.

Skills tested: identifying attitudes and opinions/suggestions/decisions.

Example:

Choose the correct letters, A-G.

Match the name of the student with the respective duty.

A

Phil

B

Suzan

C

Diana

D

Chris

E

Nathan

F

Tina

G

Ray

1 anchoring  ________

2 stage setup ________

3 reciting the poem ________

4 delivering greeting speech ________

5 performing miscellaneous duties ________

6 post-lunch presentation ________

Common Tips for IELTS Listening

  • In IELTS Listening, you are required to answer 40 questions that are divided into four sections. The full-length test can include any combinations of question tves in any section.
  • Before starting to solve each set of questions, read the instructions for the mentioned number of questions only and then attempt the questions.
  • In Listening all the three skills: reading, listening and writing are exercised simultaneouslv.
  • You are given time to look at the questions(for the mentioned set of questions only) before listening starts. Use this time efficiently.
  • It is advisable to develop the ability to predict the related word(s) in advance.
  • Each section appears in increasing order of difficulty.
  • The spelt or dictated words are usually the answers.
  • You are always given some time at the end of each section to check your work.One essential skill required for IELTS Listening is the ability to comprehend the information spoken in the audio track and interpret PARAPHRASED
  • In some question types, the information is paraphrased without changing the interpretation. Make sure to consider synonyms of the spoken words/content while reading the question paper.

How can you develop these skills?

  • Read the question and underline the keywords to listen for the answer.
  • Develop the ability to listen for the next question while writing down the previous answer.
  • The questions are mostly in progressive order.
  • If you miss any answer while listening, do not panic. Listen further for the next question.

Important Tips for Transferring answers to the answer sheet for Paper-based Test/ Writing answers for the Computer-delivered IELTS

Some differences between the two formats:

Paper-based Test

Computer-Delivered IELTS

All answers are to be written on the answer sheet.

*The Question paper will not be checked for answers.

Answers must be registered on the screen as per instructions.

If the instruction is to write a letter (A, B, C..) do

NOT write any words or phrases.


You must write the answers in pencil.


*Take care that your answers do not go out of the box on the answer sheet.

Instructions are provided for correct format of answering e.g. Writing the answer in a box,

Choosing the correct answer from a drop down list or Drag and drop.


You can come back to an unanswered question later within the test time


However, you will not listen to the audio again.

The answers can be written in upper or lower case (capital or small letters).

The answers can be typed in upper or lower case (capital or small letters).

Ten minutes extra time is given at the end of the test to transfer your answers to the answer sheet

Answers have to be entered while listening to the

audio.

Two-minutes time is given at the end of the test to check you answers.

Some common instructions:

  1. Read the instructions before each question set carefully and DO AS DIRECTED
  2. Do NOT exceed the word limit. Your answer will be WRONG if you do so.
  3. Select and write one answer only. You cannot give options in brackets. It will be counted as a wrong answer.
  4. For gap fill questions types, you MUST NOT change the form of the words
  5. In questions where you are required to fill in the blanks, consider the words before and after the blanks. You must not repeat them in your answer.

E.g. writing ‘the’ before your answer on the answer sheet will make the answer wrong if it is already written before the blank in the question sentence.

  1. Be careful with singular and plural nouns. Use them correctly.
  2. Be careful with spellings. Wrong spelling is a wrong answer.
  3. Both the British and the American variants of a spelling are acceptable. However, you should use any one variant within a test. Do NOT use a mix of both in a test.
  4. Answer all questions. There is no penalty for a wrong answer.

Multiple Choice Questions

“Choose the correct answer to a question.”

Tips

  • Familiarize with the questions in the given time.
  • Read through the questions and answer options. If your reading speed is slow, focus on the question and what kind of information you precisely need. (eg detail, name of a place, a reason, an opinion, etc. ) That will help you to remain alert as you listen and will guide you to your answer.
  • Look out for the paraphrasing of the question and answer choices.
  • The first option spoken may not always be right. Keep listening till you get some worthwhile information to answer the question.
  • Listen carefully for the given options that are ruled out by the speaker. Most of what you hear around the question will be present correctly or incorrectly in the options. This is meant to confuse you. Do not be attracted to words in isolation. Consider the context.
  • Watch out for connectors: “however”, “though” or “yet”, which means there is a shift in idea or opinion and hence may not be the correct answer.

Questions 1-7

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C

1 The Britain foster care system

A has fewer children now.

B lacks funding due to recession.

C is under pressure.

2 The number of people volunteering for foster care is

A decreasing.

B enormous.

C moderate.

3 Amelia says that the children under foster care require

A only food, clothes and education.

B more than the basic needs.

C more basic needs.

4 Residential homes are more suitable

A than foster homes.

B for a few children.

C for 70% of the children.

5 The number of children Mrs Heath’s has fostered is

A over 50.

B about 100.

C over 75.

6 Early experiences of abuse lead to

A ill-treatment later in life.

B the abandoning of children.

C feelings of alienation.

7 Foster care is an ideal profession for mothers who

A can pay a stipulated sum.

B are homemakers.

C are experienced in foster care.

1 The Britain foster care system

A has fewer children now.

B lacks funding due to recession.

C is under pressure.

 

2 The number of people volunteering for foster care is

A decreasing.

B enormous.

C moderate.

 

3 Amelia says that the children under foster care require

A only food, clothes and education.

B more than the basic needs.

C more basic needs.

 

4 Residential homes are more suitable

A than foster homes.

B for a few children.

C for 70% of the children.

 

5 The number of children Mrs Heath's has fostered is

A over 50.

B about 100.

C over 75.

 

6 Early experiences of abuse lead to

A ill-treatment later in life.

B the abandoning of children.

C feelings of alienation.

 

7 Foster care is an ideal profession for mothers who

A can pay a stipulated sum.

B are homemakers.

C are experienced in foster care.

Questions 1-6

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

1 Peter and his family will be on holiday for

A two davs.

B four days.

C five days.

 

2 The customer wants rooms on

A the first floor.

B the fifth floor.

C the tenth floor.

 

3 The new building has

A 10 floors

B 22 floors

C 2 suites

 

4 The rooftop restaurant is famous for

A local crafts.

B the native dishes.

C the formal buffets.

 

5 Peter can make the payment

A in advance.

B at the time of booking.

C while checking out.

 

6 Further communication is possible on

A extension 119.

B extension 911.

C extension 191.

1 Peter and his family will be on holiday for

A two davs.

B four days.

C five days.

 

2 The customer wants rooms on

A the first floor.

B the fifth floor.

C the tenth floor.

 

3 The new building has

A 10 floors

B 22 floors

C 2 suites

 

4 The rooftop restaurant is famous for

A local crafts.

B the native dishes.

C the formal buffets.

 

5 Peter can make the payment

A in advance.

B at the time of booking.

C while checking out.

 

6 Further communication is possible on

A extension 119.

B extension 911.

C extension 191.

Questions 1-7

Choose the correct letter. A. B or C.

1 The students initially chose to live

A in any accommodation.

B in the community.

C with a home-country mate.

 

2 The senior roommate

A has not overcome loneliness.

B has adopted the native lifestyle.

C has cultural barriers.

 

3 Robert thinks that having native roommates will help if

A they are quiet and pleasant.

B they know about the country and culture.

C they are sociable.

 

4 Ruth did not attend the Orientation because of

A a usual travel restriction.

B an unusual travel restriction.

C an extended travel restriction.

 

5 The accommodation officer is available

A everyday in the main building.

B on weekdays with an appointment.

C on weekdays as well as weekends.

 

6 Change of accommodation is possible

A after a day or two.

B until next term.

C within a day or two.

 

7 The Theatre Club currently has

A sufficient enrolment.

B 20 members.

C insufficient enrolment.

Choose the correct letter. A. B or C.

 

1 The students initially chose to live

A in any accommodation.

B in the community.

C with a home-country mate.

 

2 The senior roommate

A has not overcome loneliness.

B has adopted the native lifestyle.

C has cultural barriers.

 

3 Robert thinks that having native roommates will help if

A they are quiet and pleasant.

B they know about the country and culture.

C they are sociable.

 

4 Ruth did not attend the Orientation because of

A a usual travel restriction.

B an unusual travel restriction.

C an extended travel restriction.

 

5 The accommodation officer is available

A everyday in the main building.

B on weekdays with an appointment.

C on weekdays as well as weekends.

 

6 Change of accommodation is possible

A after a day or two.

B until next term.

C within a day or two.

 

7 The Theatre Club currently has

A sufficient enrolment.

B 20 members.

C insufficient enrolment.

Questions 1-7

Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.

1 The hospital land was donated by

A a small organization.

B a kind sponsor.

Can anonymous group.

 

2 Construction of the main building was funded by

A the town hall.

B eminent people.

C systematic funding.

 

3 Every year the hospital treats

A only 10,000 stray animals.

B only 10,000 pets.

C about 10,000 animals.

 

4 Treatment for animals is expensive as

A government aid is unavailable.

B the surgery is challenging.

C the animals need unique facilities.

 

5 The adoption rally will be held

A at the adoption centre.

B at the end of the month.

C next week.

 

6 The second request is for

A volunteer activity.

B the staff.

C fewer work hours.

 

7 Donations are accepted from

A large organisations.

B individuals.

C all of the above.

1 The hospital land was donated by

A a small organization.

B a kind sponsor.

Can anonymous group.

 

2 Construction of the main building was funded by

A the town hall.

B eminent people.

C systematic funding.

 

3 Every year the hospital treats

A only 10,000 stray animals.

B only 10,000 pets.

C about 10,000 animals.

 

4 Treatment for animals is expensive as

A government aid is unavailable.

B the surgery is challenging.

C the animals need unique facilities.

 

5 The adoption rally will be held

A at the adoption centre.

B at the end of the month.

C next week.

 

6 The second request is for

A volunteer activity.

B the staff.

C fewer work hours.

 

7 Donations are accepted from

A large organisations.

B individuals.

C all of the above.

Matching/Classification Questions

“Choose the answers from the box and write the letters.”

TIPS

Read the options carefully in the allotted time. These options may be opinions, recommendations, locations, facilities or similar details. Read the

question to listen for the required information. Match them accordingly with the lettered list/category/name.

  • The options follow the same sequence as in the script.
  • You may not find the exact statement in the recording as they are usually paraphrased.
  • Do not focus only on the keywords, but on the interpretation as a whole. Listen for modal auxiliaries (may, might, do not, etc), adverbs (never, usually, always, seldom, etc.), mono syllables (yes, no, sure, etc.)

Questions 1 - 7

Who expresses each of the opinions?

Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to Questions 1-7.

A Andrew

B Christina

C Tutor

1 Questionnaires may be unreliable.

2 Report data is reliable.

3 Opinions must not be drawn from one source only.

4 Several factors decide the dependability of a survey.

5 Avoiding fieldwork will affect the score.

6 Live surveys require alertness to the subject’s response.

7 Online content does not always save time.

A Andrew

B Christina

C Tutor

1 Questionnaires may be unreliable. A

2 Report data is reliable. B

3 Opinions must not be drawn from one source only. B

4 Several factors decide the dependability of a survey. C

5 Avoiding fieldwork will affect the score.C

6 Live surveys require alertness to the subject's response.C

7 Online content does not always save time.C

Questions 1-6

Who expresses each of the opinions?

Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to Questions 1-6.

A Michelle

B Martin

C Ms Dawson

1 New students are lacking a fundamental skill.

2 Inadequate preparation mav be a reason

3 Identifying the problem will make it less challenging.

4 Online study is not appropriate for Science courses.

5 The course must be taken up without delay.

6 Overthinking is creating a hurdle.

A Michelle

B Martin

C Ms Dawson

1 New students are lacking a fundamental skill. C

2 Inadequate preparation mav be a reason B

3 Identifying the problem will make it less challenging. B

4 Online study is not appropriate for Science courses. C

5 The course must be taken up without delay.C

6 Overthinking is creating a hurdle.C

Questions 1 - 8

Who will be responsible for each task?

Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to the questions 1-8.

A Daisy

B Jordan

C Both Daisy and Jordan

1 Write the introduction

2 Begin the presentation

3 Selecting factors to be mentioned

4 Identify regions where online career emerged

5 Make the slides

6 Proofread the content

7 Collect statistical reports

8 Do a Fact-check

A Daisy

B Jordan

C Both Daisy and Jordan


1 Write the introduction A

2 Begin the presentation A

3 Selecting factors to be mentioned C

4 Identify regions where online career emergedB

5 Make the slides A

6 Proofread the content A

7 Collect statistical reports A

8 Do a Fact-check A

Questions 1 - 6

Who expresses each of the opinions?

Write the correct letter A, B or C, next to Questions 1-6.

A George

B Jenny

C Tom

1 Greenery should be retained.

2 The number of bathrooms is not enough.

3 The Dean is old-fashioned.

4 Students should be involved in decision-making.

5 Staying away from home teaches survival skills.

6 The laundry does not need more facilities.

A George

B Jenny

C Tom

1 Greenery should be retained.  A

2 The number of bathrooms is not enough. B

3 The Dean is old-fashioned. C

4 Students should be involved in decision-making. B

5 Staying away from home teaches survival skills. C

6 The laundry does not need more facilities.  B

Plan/Map/Diagram labeling

“Label the plan.”

TIPS

  • Usually this question type is a part of section 2. However, this is not a strict rule, and you may come across a plan, map or diagram in an of the sections.
  • Listening to the description and understandirsthe directions is the key to solving these questions.
  • In this map, you need to listen to the answer and write the exact word in the blank. Alternatively, you may also get a list of the possible answers in a separate box from which you will have to choose the correct answer for each location in the map.
  • Make short notes if possible.
  • In the alloted time, you can predict the possible answers and then follow the conversation to find them.
  • It is good to create an image of the plan or map in your brain to get a better understanding of it.
  • Be careful of confusing elements such as “this used to be the car park which has now been converted into an underground library”

Questions 1-6

Labe/ the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-K, next to Questions 1-6.

WALKING TOUR MAP OF THE NATIONAL BOTANICAL GARDEN

1 nursery _______

2 native tree zone _______

3 exotic forest zone _______

4 exhibition _______

5 Shamiana _______

6 topiary display _______

1 nursery C

2 native tree zone D

3 exotic forest zone G

4 exhibition J

5 Shamiana K

6 topiary display B

Questions 1-4

Label the diagram below.

Write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 1-4,

A thumb

B hallux

C rump

D breast

E crown

F tail feathers

G legs

1 E

2 D

3 B

C

Questions 1-5

Label the map below.

Choose the correct letter, A-K and write the answers next to questions 1-5.

Cooper’s Hill

1 Single Rooms_______

2 Double Rooms with Kitchenettes_______

3 Grocery store_______

4 Canteen_______

5 Recreation Centre_______

1 Single Rooms H

2 Double Rooms with Kitchenettes I

3 Grocery store K

4 Canteen E

5 Recreation Centre C

Questions 1 - 5

Label the map below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 1-5.

1 Conference Hall _______

2 Design Wing_______

3 Photography Department_______

4 Drawing Division_______

5 Decoration and Pictures section_______

1 Conference Hall F

2 Design Wing B

3 Photography Department D

4 Drawing Division E

5 Decoration and Pictures section G

Tips:

  • This question type may appear in any of the four sections. It is just another version of gap fills. Section 2 and section 4, which are monologues mostly contain this question type.
  • Read the questions first to get an idea of what will be heard in the audio.
  • Try to guess what may go in the blank- a naming word, a descriptive word, or an action word. (noun, adjective, adverb or verb)
  • Write the words or phrases as heard in the track and not its paraphrases.
  • Consider the word form required for grammatical accuracy. Checking the prepositions will help.
  • Section two and section four, which are monologues, usually contain this kind of information on a particular social topic or academic topic respectively.
  • Assume certain answers or kind of information you need before you listen.


Complete the notes below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

  Hummingbird

  • smallest migrating bird
  • onlv creature that can fly 1_________
  • smallest species measures just over 2___________

Wings:

  • long wings enable the bird to fly in almost all directions hovering helps to collect

3 ___________and insects for food

  • wing beat rate of the tiniest female bird: 60/sec.the male bird: 80/sec

Brain:

  • accounts for 4. 2 % of the bird’s 4_____weight
  • recalls details of the 5_______visited earlier

Feathers:

  • densely feathered -nearly 940 per sq. inch on an average-sized bird
  • used by the male bird to make prominent 6_____to attract the female

Beak:

  • most complex organ
  • protects the tongue which has minute 7________to drink nectar
  • proportionately longer to its body

Legs:

  • used for perching and moving sideways

Coloration on the flanks helps to 8______different species

 Hummingbird

  • smallest migrating bird
  • onlv creature that can fly 1backwards
  • smallest species measures just over 2 5.5cms (or) 5.5 centimetres (o) 5.5 centimetres

Wings:

  • long wings enable the bird to fly in almost all directions hovering helps to collect

3 nectar and insects for food

  • wing beat rate of the tiniest female bird: 60/sec.the male bird: 80/sec

Brain:

  • accounts for 4. 2 % of the bird's 4 body weight
  • recalls details of the 5 flower visited earlier

Feathers:

  • densely feathered -nearly 940 per sq. inch on an average-sized bird

•used by the male bird to make prominent 6 sound to attract the female

Beak:

  • most complex organ
  • protects the tongue which has minute 7 hair(s) to drink nectar
  • proportionately longer to its body

Legs:

  • used for perching and moving sideways

Coloration on the flanks helps to 8 identify different species.


Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

CINEMA

History:

  • initiated in the late 1880s
  • produced in a few 1_____megacities in the world
  • became an unusual entertaining medium that attracted huge 2_______
  • seen as a competition to traditional enjoyments
  • continues to 3______the entertainment industry

Credits to countries:

  • contribution from leading countries
  • the 4______moviemakers led further developments
  • USA captured global cinema market, worked its export 5 _________

Hollywood:

  • did better 6_______than other film industries
  • audience appealed by the complete package of entertainment
  • hired experts from 7________

Technological advancement:

  • modern digital cameras and drones
  • evolutions in editing, 3D printing, cloud-based technologies
  • Films can be produced in affordable 8__________

 CINEMA

History:

  • initiated in the late 1880s
  • produced in a few 1 popular megacities in the world
  • became an unusual entertaining medium that attracted huge 2 audience(s)
  • seen as a competition to traditional enjoyments
  • continues to 3 dominate the entertainment industry

Credits to countries:

  • contribution from leading countries
  • the 4 French moviemakers led further developments
  • USA captured global cinema market, worked its export 5 policies

Hollywood:

  • did better 6 business than other film industries
  • audience appealed by the complete package of entertainment
  • hired experts from 7 Europe

Technological advancement:

  • modern digital cameras and drones
  • evolutions in editing, 3D printing, cloud-based technologies

• Films can be produced in affordable 8 budget(s)


Complete the notes below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

TARANTULA

  • has a scary appearance, rarely attacks humans
  • the sting of a tarantula was thought to be 1_____for humans
  • an antidote was established in the form of a wild 2 ________
  • later the study found the locals mistook the bite of a black widow to be a tarantula bite

Theraphosids:

  • it is the scientific terminology for tarantula
  • also known as bird-eating spiders
  • the largest recorded size was as big as a regular 3______
  • out of 650 kinds, the majority are small in size, with a leg span of 4_____

Nature of the Tarantula:

  • not aggressive
  • can sense the heat of the human bod
  • likely to 5_______human contact
  • use 6_____for defence, may not inject venom
  • Usually bites to overpower the prey than to kill
  • the bite is like a 7______but may not be lethal

Two prominent myths:

First – The wolf spider is a tarantula (The original tarantula is relatively 8___)

Second – The female spider consumes the 9____partner after mating

Fact:

  • Cannibalism exists in spider species.
  • After mating the male tarantula tries to 10______

TARANTULA

  • has a scary appearance, rarely attacks humans
  • the sting of a tarantula was thought to be 1 deadly for humans
  • an antidote was established in the form of a wild 2 dance
  • later the study found the locals mistook the bite of a black widow to be a tarantula bite

Theraphosids:

  • it is the scientific terminology for tarantula
  • also known as bird-eating spiders
  • the largest recorded size was as big as a regular 3 dinner plate 
  • out of 650 kinds, the majority are small in size, with a leg span of 4 2cm (or) two cm/centimeters/centimeters 

Nature of the Tarantula:

  • not aggressive
  • can sense the heat of the human bod
  • likely to 5 avoid human contact
  • use 6 fangs for defence, may not inject venom
  • Usually bites to overpower the prey than to kill
  • the bite is like a 7 bee sting but may not be lethal

Two prominent myths:

First - The wolf spider is a tarantula (The original tarantula is relatively 8 small)

Second - The female spider consumes the 9 male partner after mating

Fact:

  • Cannibalism exists in spider species.

• After mating the male tarantula tries to 10 move away

Form Filling

Tips:

  • Always check the task instructions for the maximum word and/or number specified for each answer.
  • For this question type, you will see a form with some missing information.
  • Try to predict what role you are expected to play here while listening.
  • Note the following as you listen: Who the speakers are? What is the conversation about? What is the information?
  • Often the speaker makes intentional errors with the names, address or the numbers and then corrects it. These are distractors that you should be careful to avoid. Get familiar with the pronunciation of letters and numbers in English to note down the spelling or digit correctly as you listen.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Student’s details

Name:                                  Paula 1___________

Department:                              2___________

Programme:                         Full-time Master’s degree

Contact number:                        3___________

Address:                                    on-campus accommodation

                                                      Wing 3

                                                    Room Number 206



University clubs:                        Features:

4________                           discounts, theme parties and weekly 5______led by

                                                students of the Performing Arts Department

Speak Your Mind:                     debates, elocution and writing contests

                                               performers maybe 6______for intercollege contests

The Spiritual club:                       meditation, breathing exercises and yoga

                                                     guidance from certified members

                                                     helps to deal with increasing 7________

Off-campus clubs:

Contact person:                           Tracy

Available on:                                weekdays – 11.00 am to 1.00 pm

                                                  weekends – 9.00 am to 8_______ am

Student's details

Name:                                  Paula 1 Keppler

Department:                              2 Economics 

Programme:                         Full-time Master's degree

Contact number:                        3 2088 678805

Address:                                    on-campus accommodation

                                                      Wing 3

                                                    Room Number 206



University clubs:                        Features:

4 Movie Magic                           discounts, theme parties and weekly 5discussions              

                                                                                                led by

                                                students of the Performing Arts Department

Speak Your Mind:                     debates, elocution and writing contests

                                               performers maybe 6 selected for intercollege contests

The Spiritual club:                       meditation, breathing exercises and yoga

                                                     guidance from certified members

                                                     helps to deal with increasing 7 academic pressure 

Off-campus clubs:

Contact person:                           Tracy

Available on:                                weekdays - 11.00 am to 1.00 pm

                                                      weekends - 9.00 am to 8 10:30 am


Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

LIBRARY MEMBERSHIP

Name                                        Louise 1_________

Address:                                   Room 78, Soap Street,

                                                   2__________Grounds

Zip code:                                     3___________

Contact number (Louise):            4____________

Alternate number (Husband):         4785969802

Document submitted:                    Driving license

Date of Birth:                               5_____________

*Membership fee:                       6 £___________.1995

Preferred videos:                 Funny videos, love stories and films shot at 7____ locations

* refundable after minimum four months of membership

LIBRARY MEMBERSHIP

Name                                        Louise 1 Jones(or) jones 

Address:                             Room 78, Soap Street,

                                                   2 (the) Greater Market Grounds

Zip code:                                     3 2012

Contact number (Louise):            4 4785986612

Alternate number (Husband):         4785969802

Document submitted:                    Driving license

Date of Birth:                               5 2 February / February 2, 1995

*Membership fee:                       6 £ 200

Preferred videos:                 Funny videos, love stories and films shot at 7exotic locations

* refundable after minimum four months of membership


Complete the form below.

 

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Tenant Complaint Form

Name of the Tenant:            Paul 1____________

Address:                             Street 7, Parkview

                                             2____________City

Contact number:                   3_____________

Moved in on:                         4______________

CATEGORY OF COMPLAINT

  • Maintenance (common facilities) – no complaints
  • Indoor facilities: yes

Details:

Facility

Problem

washing machine

a 5______in the faucet

6__________

makes noise

balcony door

7_______hinge

window(s)

broken pane in the living room,

8_______windows in the bedroom

Maintenance: 

Contact person: David

Contact number: 9_____

Availability: after 10______

Tips:

  • This question type may appear in any of the four sections. It is another version of note taking or form filling.
  • You will see a table with some missing information.
  • Read the column headings. The movement of questions is always from LEFT to RIGHT.
  • Read all the given information as it will help you to assume the answers.
  • Notice the word forms used in the given information as that will be the appropriate word form for your answer.
  • The information will be presented in compete sentences, phrases, or bullet points. Checking the prepositions will help. Keep the structure in mind for grammatical accuracy.
  • Consider the word and number limit for each answer.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

                                            The London Underground

        DATE                

        EVENT          

NOTES

1863

The (1)________line

Metropolitan Railway

1900

Metro opened in Paris

Paris Underground, took its name from the

(2)__________Metropolitan Railway

WWIl

War Cabinet used

(3)________Station

Underground location made it safer

1987

31 people died in a

(4)______at King’s Cross Station

Probably caused by a passenger’s match

(5)___________escalators replaced

Today

System continues to grow

275 stations and (6)____

Mon-Fri.

Average weekday number of trips on the tube is three million.

The London Underground

 

DATE                

EVENT          

NOTES

1863

The (1) first line

Metropolitan Railway

1900

Metro opened in Paris

Paris Underground, took its name from the

(2) English Metropolitan Railway

WWIl

War Cabinet used

(3) Down Street Station

Underground location made it safer

1987

31 people died in a

(4) Fire at King's Cross Station

Probably caused by a passenger's match

(5) wooden escalators replaced

Today

System continues to grow

275 stations and (6) 12 lines/ twelve lines

Mon-Fri.

Average weekday number of trips on the tube is three million.


Complete the table below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Fit and Fine Centre

Gym 

Facilities

best equipment available,

professional1_____

soon to start for people with 2 ___job settings.

Time Slots

5 am to 9 pm every day

Plan for a 24-hour gym facility

Trainers

Stanley

Tracy

Yang Lee

Tuesdays, Wednesdays and Saturdays, evenings

weekdays and on 3____mornings

Mondays, Thursdays and Friday four to seven pm

Development

Gym Area

ground floor by 700 sq. ft to

• first floor

•second floor

Garden created opposite to the gym

Used for

Four new 4___chest press, shoulder

press, squat rack and leg extension machine group exercises

the health and 5___centre in future

Only for club members

Rented out to club members for events (can accommodate nearly a hundred people)

“list of recommended service providers at a bargain price

Membership

Plans

Quarterly membership

Six-month membership

Annual membership

Rates 

6 £_____

5% discount

5% discount with an 7____facility twice a  week

Fit and Fine Centre

Gym 

Facilities

best equipment available,

Professional1 trainers 

soon to start for people with 2 odd job settings.

Time Slots

5 am to 9 pm every day

Plan for a 24-hour gym facility

Trainers

Stanley

Tracy

Yang Lee

Tuesdays, Wednesdays and Saturdays, evenings

weekdays and on 3 Sunday mornings

Mondays, Thursdays and Friday four to seven pm

Development

Gym Area

ground floor by 700 sq. ft to

• first floor

•second floor

Garden created opposite to the gym

Used for

Four new 4 equipment chest press, shoulder

press, squat rack and leg extension machine group exercises

the health and 5 wellness centre in future

Only for club members

Rented out to club members for events (can accommodate nearly a hundred people)

"list of recommended service providers at a bargain price

Membership

Plans

Quarterly membership

Six-month membership

Annual membership

Rates 

6 £ 160 

5% discount

5% discount with an 7 additional facility twice a  week


Complete the table below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

 

BODY PART/ORGAN(S) 

DESCRIPTION

Pterodactylus :


Initial studies:

Skulls


Teeth

Chest

Usually 1____shaped


jagged

Made of 2___

Recent research classification:-

  

First category- 3______

skulls

15-45 mm long

Second category -4____

Skulls

Teeth

bigger

Set in 5_____

Archosaurs

6____eyes

Openings in front of the eyes and in the jaw



 

BODY PART/ORGAN(S) 

DESCRIPTION

Pterodactylus :


Initial studies:

Skulls


Teeth

Chest

Usually 1cone shaped


jagged

Made of 2 soft tissue 

Recent research classification:-

  

First category- 3 reptiles 

skulls

15-45 mm long

Second category -4 birds 

Skulls

Teeth

bigger

Set in 5 sockets 

Archosaurs

6 bulgy eyes

Openings in front of the eyes and in the jaw


Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Destination

Features

Pyramids of Giza

• 1____years old

• Tombs of Egyptian kings, popularly named Ekhet Khufu or

2____of Khufu

• Guarded by the Sphinx- mighty limestone structure

Temples at Luxor – ancient city of Thebes

• east bank – lively, has a market

• west bank- 3____, has many tombs and temples

• display of wall art around the temple walls

• called the world’s largest open-air

4____________

• Two famous temples: Hatshetout and

Karnak, a declared heritage site by UNESCO

Fatimid Cairo, also called Islamic Cairo

• established in 5_______as an enclosure for Fatimid caliphs

• narrow lanes with, small 6______selling a

 range of products and souvenirs

Alexandria

• founded by Alexander the great in 331 BC

• coastal city, important port and

7____centre.

historical sites destroyed in an earthquake in the 14th century.

Siwa Oasis- located near the western border of

Egypt, 8________

from the rest of Egypt until the 19th century

• freshwater 9_______

• vast stretches of palm groves

Sharm el-Sheikh

• beach resort

• ideal 10___locations

• Nabq – popular for snorkelling

Destination

Features

Pyramids of Giza

• 1 (around)4500 years old

• Tombs of Egyptian kings, popularly named Ekhet Khufu or

2 horizon of Khufu

• Guarded by the Sphinx- mighty limestone structure

Temples at Luxor - ancient city of Thebes

• east bank - lively, has a market

• west bank- 3 quiet, has many tombs and temples

• display of wall art around the temple walls

• called the world's largest open-air

4 museum 

• Two famous temples: Hatshetout and

Karnak, a declared heritage site by UNESCO

Fatimid Cairo, also called Islamic Cairo

• established in 5 969 as an enclosure for Fatimid caliphs

• narrow lanes with, small 6 shops selling a range of products and souvenirs

Alexandria

• founded by Alexander the great in 331 BC

• coastal city, important port and

7 transportation centre.

historical sites destroyed in an earthquake in the 14th century.

Siwa Oasis- located near the western border of

Egypt, 8 culturally  detached 

from the rest of Egypt until the 19th century

• freshwater 9 springs 

• vast stretches of palm groves

Sharm el-Sheikh

• beach resort

• ideal 10 divings locations

• Nabq - popular for snorkelling

Tips

  • Go through the sentences in the allotted time, and check what kind of word (adjective, verb or noun) you need. It is advisable to read the summary as a whole paragraph before you listen. A summary will not include all the details and the information will be combined using connectors or compound and complex sentences. The paraphrasing must be understood to listen and comprehend at the same time.
  • Read the instructions carefully to check the maximum number of words you can write.
  • Also, pay attention to the words written before and after the blank and listen for these words (Remember the spoken words may be replaced with synonyms in the questions and vice versa.)
  • Pay attention to the grammatical requirement such as singular or plural, verb, verb form, noun, adverb or adjective to complete the sentences.
  • Write exactly the same words in the blanks as you hear it in the recording. Writing synonyms will cost you a mark.

Complete the summary below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Vehicle Safety

Road rage incidents occur over minor issues. The speaker included adult male and female subjects in his survey to identify their 1______ among the categories listed in a questionnaire. Most of the respondents were eager to 2________It was clear from the one hundred and forty-six responses that a sizable proportion faced some or the other problem, however only physical assault cases required 3_______intervention. One hypothesis is that men are more likely to confront other drivers. Another factor is called ‘pareidolia perceiving human faces in objects §r on a 4 _________Carmakers accept that pareidolia helps car choice to the buyers. but it is also noticed that people mostly perceive 5________on the cars. A few individual measures can be helpful to deal with road rage, such as punctuality, calmness, ignoring triggers, gathering mind control and avoiding eye contact with rash drivers. Also, the choice of 6______can make the journey enjoyable.

Road rage incidents occur over minor issues. The speaker included adult male and female subjects in his survey to identify their 1 experience among the categories listed in a questionnaire. Most of the respondents were eager to 2 participate It was clear from the one hundred and forty-six responses that a sizable proportion faced some or the other problem, however only physical assault cases required 3 police intervention. One hypothesis is that men are more likely to confront other drivers. Another factor is called 'pareidolia perceiving human faces in objects §r on a 4  surface Carmakers accept that pareidolia helps car choice to the buyers. but it is also noticed that people mostly perceive 5 angry faces on the cars. A few individual measures can be helpful to deal with road rage, such as punctuality, calmness, ignoring triggers, gathering mind control and avoiding eye contact with rash drivers. Also, the choice of 6 music/ songs can make the journey enjoyable.


Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Halley’s Comet

Moving 1_____to the Earth every 75 years, the most recent observation of the Halley’s comet was in 2_____It is expected to appear again in the 21st century. Edmund Halley, after whom the comet is named, first saw it with a distinct mark like a 3______in the sky. Investigation of previous similar events and their periodic arrival revealed that all were reappearances of the same comet. As a result of this 4_____, a standard method for comet studies was established which helped astronomers to deduce the theory of the comets rotating around the Sun. The European Space Agency, Chinese studies and other studies have mentioned different years of the comet’s sightings and some appearances are 5 ________in Babylonian texts which are stored in the British Museum. In the past, experts had two notions about sighting a comet. The first was associated with 6________and diseases. However, the second narrative from Europe was that a comet was an 7____of power and divinity. Nicolaus Copernicus corrected the old opinion of the Earth being in the centre of the universe. He declared that all the planets 8_____around the Sun. Finally, it became the prototype to track 9_____in the solar system.In future, a close-range exploration of Halley is possible with the help of a modern 10____

Moving 1 close to the Earth every 75 years, the most recent observation of the Halley's comet was in 2 1986 It is expected to appear again in the 21st century. Edmund Halley, after whom the comet is named, first saw it with a distinct mark like a 3 tail in the sky. Investigation of previous similar events and their periodic arrival revealed that all were reappearances of the same comet. As a result of this 4 discovery, a standard method for comet studies was established which helped astronomers to deduce the theory of the comets rotating around the Sun. The European Space Agency, Chinese studies and other studies have mentioned different years of the comet's sightings and some appearances are 5 Documented in Babylonian texts which are stored in the British Museum. In the past, experts had two notions about sighting a comet. The first was associated with 6 disasters and diseases. However, the second narrative from Europe was that a comet was an 7 indicator of power and divinity. Nicolaus Copernicus corrected the old opinion of the Earth being in the centre of the universe. He declared that all the planets 8 revolved around the Sun. Finally, it became the prototype to track 9 movements in the solar system.In future, a close-range exploration of Halley is possible with the help of a modern 10 spacecraft.


Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.

Digitalisation

Digitisation is the transition from analogue to digital methods of storing authentic information. Digital versions of books, oral records, microfilm and newspapers are stored in a 1_______or museum. Many organizations have already started converting physical books into ebooks. In this process, Google inc. has included educational institutes to provide an online library with verifiable reference material for 2______Similarly. Cambridge University, Carnegie Mellon Million Book and other organizations are working extensively in the same direction to convert all books into digital format. The world’s leading online retailer Amazon has begun seeking 3______from the writers before selling their books online. However, some argue that the experience of reading in a 4____library cannot be replaced by technology. Also, digitized material requires a typical set up to be used, which may be 5_________or inaccessible in certain regions. Creators of digitised versions of texts must take particular care of the 6______for a good reading experience, and also for preservation of the digitised formats

Digitisation is the transition from analogue to digital methods of storing authentic information. Digital versions of books, oral records, microfilm and newspapers are stored in a 1 library or museum. Many organizations have already started converting physical books into ebooks. In this process, Google inc. has included educational institutes to provide an online library with verifiable reference material for 2 research Similarly. Cambridge University, Carnegie Mellon Million Book and other organizations are working extensively in the same direction to convert all books into digital format. The world's leading online retailer Amazon has begun seeking 3 approval from the writers before selling their books online. However, some argue that the experience of reading in a 4 conventional library cannot be replaced by technology. Also, digitized material requires a typical set up to be used, which may be 5 expensive or inaccessible in certain regions. Creators of digitised versions of texts must take particular care of the 6 quality for a good reading experience, and also for preservation of the digitised formats


Complete the summary below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Global warming

Global warming occurs when pollutants and greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the 1_______noticed that in the past five decades, there has been a 2 _______also save money in the process by following some simple tips from the sun, which further leads to many problems. It is rise in the earth’s temperature. However, an individual can turn the situation around and As CFL consumes 70% less power and has a later expiration date, one can begin by 3______reduce pollution, hence driving only when necessary or using 4____ use of the 5______gasoline will be helpful to curb global warming. them with the regular bulbs. Fewer vehicles on the road can to travel to the workplace are better options. Buying eco-friendly vehicles and the Apart from these, the three Rs that are reducing, reusing and recycling can do wonders for the environment by significantly cutting down the amount of 6____Another corrective measure is upcycling old things to reduce 7____in landfills. The use of solar power will not only lower costs but also recover the expensive 8____cost. Additionally, the two easiest energy-saving ways include turning off 9______appliances and closing the  refrigerator 10_____when not in use.

Global warming occurs when pollutants and greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap the 1radiation noticed that in the past five decades, there has been a 2 3% also save money in the process by following some simple tips from the sun, which further leads to many problems. It is rise in the earth's temperature. However, an individual can turn the situation around and As CFL consumes 70% less power and has a later expiration date, one can begin by 3 replacing reduce pollution, hence driving only when necessary or using 4 carpools use of the 5 cleanest gasoline will be helpful to curb global warming. them with the regular bulbs. Fewer vehicles on the road can to travel to the workplace are better options. Buying eco-friendly vehicles and the Apart from these, the three Rs that are reducing, reusing and recycling can do wonders for the environment by significantly cutting down the amount of 6 waste Another corrective measure is upcycling old things to reduce 7 scrap in landfills. The use of solar power will not only lower costs but also recover the expensive 8 installation cost. Additionally, the two easiest energy-saving ways include turning off 9 electronic appliances and closing the refrigerator 10 door when not in use.

Tips

  • Listen to the recording and guess the grammatical of the word vou need (for example. a noun. an adiective or a verb)
  • Always check the instructions to get an idea about the number of words and/or numbers you are allowed to write as some synonyms may have already been used in the question. Writing more words than the limit will cost you a mark.
  • A flowchart usually describes a sequence of events and therefore it is easier to follow the talk or conversation. Reading the sequence in the allotted time to look at the questions will help you to assume some answers.
  • Be careful with the use of articles, use them wherever required for grammatical accuracy, especially if you have to complete a sentence or mention a specific detail. (e g. A or THE according to the number or type of noun.)
  • The question type is much similar to note completion where you need to fill in the missing information.

Complete the flowchart below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

Manufacturing a Simple Shoe

Raw materials like suede, leather, vinyl or 1____________ such as denim is collected.

                                    ↓

The 2 _____are cut carefully by specialists.

                                    ↓

Soles are cut with a machine.

                                   ↓

The next step is stitching and glueing.

                                    ↓

The shoe is given shape with a 3________ during the stitching.

                                    ↓

The handcrafted crepe outsole is glued with strong adhesives for 4_______

                                    ↓

The pulp foot foam is placed into the shoe bed.

                                    ↓

The pulp foot foam is placed into the shoe bed. Finishing includes trimming the heels, polishing the leather and making the eyelets, and 5___________are attached manually.

                                        ↓

Shoes are stuffed and wrapped in 6__________ to retain shape.

Raw materials like suede, leather, vinyl or 1 Fabric  such as denim is collected.

                                    ↓

The 2 uppers are cut carefully by specialists.

                                    ↓

Soles are cut with a machine.

                                   ↓

The next step is stitching and glueing.

                                    ↓

The shoe is given shape with a 3 lasting board during the stitching.

                                    ↓

The handcrafted crepe outsole is glued with strong adhesives for 4 durability 

                                    ↓

The pulp foot foam is placed into the shoe bed.

                                    ↓

The pulp foot foam is placed into the shoe bed. Finishing includes trimming the heels, polishing the leather and making the eyelets, and 5 Shoelaces are attached manually.

                                        ↓

Shoes are stuffed and wrapped in 6 Wax paper to retain shape.


Complete the flowchart below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

Process – Candy making

Arrival of ingredients from the supplier.

                                  ↓

1_________ conducted before storage.

                                    ↓

Sugar and liquid glucose syrup mixed, dissolved in water, and boiled at 145 degree C.  

                                      ↓

Addition of 16.2 gms of vamilin and 10% of 2______

                                      ↓

Mixture cooked for 3______ adding color while it still boils.

                                      ↓

Addition of citric acid and flavors on cooling.

                                      ↓

Loading of the solid mixture onto the 4 ________to shape into drops.

                                      ↓

Batchwise matching of 5

______with the colour of the candies.

                                      ↓

Sorting out defective candies with 6_____

                                      ↓

Sprinkling of starch, packing and pre-dispatch inspection of packed candies.

                                        ↓

Three to six dozen rolls per carton / 100 -500 gms pouches of 7______

 

Process- Candy making

Arrival of ingredients from the supplier.

                                  ↓

1A Quality check conducted before storage.

                                    ↓

Sugar and liquid glucose syrup mixed, dissolved in water, and boiled at 145 degree C.  

                                      ↓

Addition of 16.2 gms of vamilin and 10% of 2 reworks 

                                      ↓

Mixture cooked for 3 30 minutes adding color while it still boils.

                                      ↓

Addition of citric acid and flavors on cooling.

                                      ↓

Loading of the solid mixture onto the 4 Roller machine to shape into drops.

                                      ↓

Batch wise matching of 5 The flavours with the colour of the candies.

                                      ↓

Sorting out defective candies with 6 metal detector 

                                      ↓

Sprinkling of starch, packing and pre-dispatch inspection of packed candies.

                                        ↓

Three to six dozen rolls per carton / 100 -500 gms pouches of 7 single wraps

Complete The Sentences

Tips

  • Go through the sentences in the allotted time, and check what kind of word (adjective, verb or noun) you need.
  • Read the instructions carefully to check the maximum number of words you can write.
  • Also, pay attention to the words written before and after the blank and listen for these words (Remember, the spoken words may be replaced with synonyms in the questions and vice versa.)
  • Write exactly the same words in the blank as you hear it in the recording. Writing synonyms will cost you a mark.

Questions 1-8

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.

1 Realising ___ is the basic requirement of a productive workshop.

2 Reaching before the____keeps one calm and relaxed.

3 Informal interaction at the onset helps in____a connection with the participants.

4 The ice-breaking activity is a____way that still exists.

5 It is important to mention the____of the day and follow it strictly.

6 The audience may not retain____in the latter half.

7 The selected venue must have____in working condition.

8  The set____for the workshop must be displayed for references or clarification.

1 Realising objectives is the basic requirement of a productive workshop.

2 Reaching before the participants keep one calm and relaxed.

3 Informal interaction at the onset helps in building a connection with the participants.

4 The ice-breaking activity is a conventional way that still exists.

5 It is important to mention the schedule of the day and follow it strictly.

6 The audience may not retain interest in the latter half.

7 The selected venue must have facilities in working condition.

8 The set ground rules for the workshop must be displayed for references or clarification.


Questions 1- 10

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 Standardised language tests____the candidate’s communication skill in the native language.

2 Candidates fail to develop a suitable___while preparing for language tests.

3 Study material must be chosen_______

4 It is advised to choose books by____English writers for an English test.

5 Understanding the______of the test makes preparation easy.

6 Unlike other subject tests, language assessment presents

_______ to the test takers.

7 Language learning must be an ongoing process in the_____

8 Spending_______hours daily is sufficient for test preparation.

9 It is better to_____more questions as there is no negative marking.

10 Performance is better if the brain receives sufficient_____

1 Standardised language tests assess the candidate's communication skill in the native language.

2 Candidates fail to develop a suitable approach while preparing for language tests.

3 Study material must be chosen carefully.

4 It is advised to choose books by native English writers for an English test.

5 Understanding the nature of the test makes preparation easy.

6 Unlike other subject tests, language assessment presents unseen material to the test takers.

7 Language learning must be an ongoing process in the mind.

8 Spending two/2 hours daily is sufficient for test preparation.

9 It is better to attempt more questions as there is no negative marking.

10 Performance is better if the brain receives sufficient oxygen.


Questions 1- 7

Complete the sentences below.

Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 Bungee jumping is challenging as well as_____

2 The guide has attempted over____from the bridge.

3 The Zambezi Adrenaline Company has not recorded any ______yet.

4 It is assumed that the sudden movement during the jump can harm the back and____

5____are advised to attempt the headfirst dive.

6 The company will not provide a_______after the form is duly signed.

7 The cafe on the bridge provides some relief from the____

1 Bungee jumping is challenging as well as dangerous.

2 The guide has attempted over fifty/50 jumps from the bridge.

3 The Zambezi Adrenaline Company has not recorded any casualty yet.

4 It is assumed that the sudden movement during the jump can harm the back and eyeballs.

5 Beginners are advised to attempt the headfirst dive.

6 The company will not provide a refund after the form is duly signed.

7 The cafe on the bridge provides some relief from the heat.


Questions 1-8

Complete the sentences below.

Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 Polar bears use the technique of still-hunting to consume less___

2 The___serve as seal hunting spots for the polar bears.

3 The.____in the arctic region does not allow bears to hunt seals.

4 The sea ice in the Arctic region is reducing by___every decade.

5 An adult____bear could be as heavy as 700 to 1500 pounds.

6 Travelling for food will result in____as well as the strength to hunt.

7 By the next few decades, the polar bear population is likely to fall below___

8 Decreasing our____can help to stop global warming.

1 Polar bears use the technique of still-hunting to consume less energy.

2 The breathing holes serve as seal hunting spots for the polar bears.

3 The melting ice in the arctic region does not allow bears to hunt seals.

4 The sea ice in the Arctic region is reducing by 14% or fourteen percent/per cent every decade.

5 An adult male/male polar bear could be as heavy as 700 or 1500 pounds.

6 Travelling for food will result in weight loss as well as the strength to hunt.

7 By the next few decades, the polar bear population is likely to fall below 10,000.

8 Decreasing our carbon footprint can help to protect the environment.

Short Answer Questions

TIPS

  • Read the questions before you listen to the audio track.
  • Try and predict the answer by looking at the question. What information do you need – a date, time, or maybe a detail about a person?
  • Underline any keywords that might help you find the answer.
  • Do not use the words that you hear around the information. Read the question carefully and listen for the precise information.
  • Read the question and look at the Wh-word to find exactly what you need to answer.
  • Consider all the words that make up the answer. For example, some answers may require function words such as prepositions and articles in particular.
  • Instructions must be read properly, as you may not be allowed to write answers beyond a specified number of words or numbers. Therefore, at times some function words may or may not be required at all. Consider the context, and how much sense your answer makes.

Questions 1-8

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 What is prevented by the stretch and strength of Mycelium?

2 What do fungi develop to fight decay?

3 How much mycelium is formed in one cubic inch of soil?

4 What does Mycelium conquer by setting up its network?

5 Which structure is responsible for water sucking?

6 What apart from nutrients, is supplied by the structure of mycelium?

7 Where is the largest fungus found?

8 Which group does the largest fungus belong to?

1 What is prevented by the stretch and strength of Mycelium?

Answer: soil erosion

2 What do fungi develop to fight decay?

Answer: antibodies

3 How much mycelium is formed in one cubic inch of soil?

Answer: over 8 miles /8 miles /eight miles

4 What does Mycelium conquer by setting up its network?

Answer: territory

5 Which structure is responsible for water sucking?

Answer: micro-cavities/ microcavities

6 What apart from nutrients, is supplied by the structure of mycelium?

Answer: information

7 Where is the largest fungus found?

Answer: the Blue Mountains/ Blue Mountains

8 Which group does the largest fungus belong to?

Answer: honey fungus


Questions 1- 7

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 How many tons of plastic are discharged annually in the ocean?

2 Which everyday product contains the maximum volume of microplastics?

3 Which component from cosmetic goods enters the food chain?

4 What is released from synthetic clothes while washing?

5 Which washing machine system is more damaging?

6 How do sharks and whales search for plankton?

7 What alternative(s) to plastic packaging does the speaker suggest?

1 How many tons of plastic are discharged annually in the ocean?

Answer: (around) 20 /twenty tons (or) 20 /twenty tons (or) 20 /twenty (tonnes is also acceptable)

 

2 Which everyday product contains the maximum volume of microplastics?

Answer: toothpaste

 

3 Which component from cosmetic goods enters the food chain?

Answer: microbeads

 

4 What is released from synthetic clothes while washing?

Answer: plastic fibres

 

5 Which washing machine system is more damaging?

Answer: top-loading (machines)

 

6 How do sharks and whales search for plankton?

Answer: (by) filtering water

 

7 What alternative(s) to plastic packaging does the speaker suggest?

Answer: cloth bags (or) reusable containers


Questions 1-9

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 How far is Arakaree from the Village Club?

2 When do the hills look like a pink carpet?

3 What do the animals get from the salty rocks?

4 What do the balconies provide during animal watching?

5 Who alerts visitors when an animal is spotted?

6 Who uses the bunkers as a hideout?

7 How will the visitors be taken to the rope bridge?

8 What transport is used to take people to the Arkaree?

9 What must the travellers carry for the trip to the forest?

1 How far is Arakaree from the Village Club?

Answer: 50 km /fifty / 50 kilometres /kilometers

 

2 When do the hills look like a pink carpet?

Answer: (in) spring

 

3 What do the animals get from the salty rocks?

Answer: mineral supplements

 

4 What do the balconies provide during animal watching?

Answer: safety

 

5 Who alerts visitors when an animal is spotted?

Answer: (the) night guard

 

6 Who uses the bunkers as a hideout?

Answer: photographers

 

7 How will the visitors be taken to the rope bridge?

Answer: (by) bus

 

8 What transport is used to take people to the Arkaree?

Answer: (by) ropeway

 

9 What must the travellers carry for the trip to the forest?

Answer: (on) overnight bag 


Questions 1-7

Answer the questions below.

Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

1 What is the post of the speaker at Climatech Weather Adaptability Solutions?

2 What is the topic of the speech?

3 What subject did the speaker like at school?

4 How many students from the speaker’s batch decided to study further?

5 What will help to make the second-best choice?

6 Which subject did the speaker choose in his major?

7 What can be secured faster through career development?

1 What is the post of the speaker at Climatech Weather Adaptability Solutions?

Answer: General Manager

 

2 What is the topic of the speech?

Answer: career development

 

3 What subject did the speaker like at school?

Answer: science

 

4 How many students from the speaker's batch decided to study further?

Answer: (only) 10 (students)

 

5 What will help to make the second-best choice?

Answer: (a) backup plan

 

6 Which subject did the speaker choose in his major?

Answer: climatic science (s)

 

7 What can be secured faster through career development?

Answer: (your) ideal job

"Choose the options from the given list."

TIPS

  • Read the options carefully and highlight the key information when you are allotted time to read the questions
  • Speakers may mention all the options, but they may be partly correct or may not answer the question. Simply getting the keywords does not make the answer correct.
  • Read the questions carefully and be ready to listen for the details you need
  • Use the POE or the Process of Elimination for accuracy. Eliminate options that are unsuitable, which means they are irrelevant, misleading or contradictory. It will make you more confident about your answers.
  • Always keep the situation of theme of the script in consideration. It will help you to assume answers and stay ahead of the test.

Questions 1-6

 

Questions 1-2

  1. Choose TWO letters. A-E.

2. Which TWO of the following does the speaker mention about the rides?

A The park has reopened for renovation.

B Only new rides are listed in the brochure.

C The park now has edditional rides

D Repairs will begin after two weeks.

E Not all rides are functioning.

 

Questions 3-4

3. Choose TWO letters, A-E.

4. Which TWO of the following are new additions in the park?

A dressing area

B baby care room

C outbuilding

D four air-conditioned rooms

E wheelchairs and prams

 

Questions 5-6

5. Choose THREE letters. A-G.

6. Which THREE of the following facilities are available inside the park?

A spacious food stalls

B two rooftop restaurants

C accommodation with special discount

D accessible ATM Machines

E personal belongings counter

F camera surveillance 

G counter to deposit lost property

Questions 1-2

Choose TWO letters. A-E.

Which TWO of the following does the speaker mention about the rides?

A The park has reopened for renovation.

B Only new rides are listed in the brochure.

Answer:C The park now has edditional rides

D Repairs will begin after two weeks.

Answer:E Not all rides are functioning.

 

Questions 3-4

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Which TWO of the following are new additions in the park?

A dressing area

Answer:B baby care room

Answer:C outbuilding

D four air-conditioned rooms

E wheelchairs and prams

 

Questions 5-7

Choose THREE letters. A-G.

Which THREE of the following facilities are available inside the park?

A spacious food stalls

B two rooftop restaurants

Answer:C accommodation with special discount

Answer:D accessible ATM Machines

E personal belongings counter

F camera surveillance 

Answer:G counter to deposit lost property 


Questions 1-6

 

Questions 1 and 2

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

What TWO things does the speaker mention about Learwoods Lodge?

A her designation at the lodge

B the number of groups

C the type of stay

D the peaceful surrounding

E the pricelist

 

Questions 3 and 4

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

Which TWO things does the speaker recommend?

A carrying a flashlight.

B walk back for medicine

C carrying rain-wear

D protective clothing

E sandals or slippers

 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

Which TWO activities will be conducted?

A breakfast in the woods

B trek into the forest

visit to the waterfalls

D swimming

E clearing the trail

Questions 1 and 2

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

What TWO things does the speaker mention about Learwoods Lodge?

Answer:A her designation at the lodge

B the number of groups

C the type of stay

Answer:D the peaceful surrounding

E the pricelist

 

Questions 3 and 4

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

Which TWO things does the speaker recommend?

Answer:A carrying a flashlight.

B walk back for medicine

C carrying rain-wear

Answer:D protective clothing

E sandals or slippers

 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

Which TWO activities will be conducted?

A breakfast in the woods

Answer:B trek into the forest

Answer:C visit to the waterfalls

D swimming

E clearing the trail


Questions 1-6

 

Questions 1 and 2

Choose TWO letters. A – E.

What TWO features of the rhyme scheme does the speaker mention?

Alt is a repetition of each line.

B It is not a common method.

C it includes rhyming alphabets.

D It includes rhyming sounds.

E it may be altered within a poem.

 

Questions 3 and 4

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

What TWO features of a figure of speech does the speaker mention?

A lt is a wordy description.

B It is an imaginary word.

Citis a word or a phrase.

D It can have a different meaning.

E It uses the literal meaning.

 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

What TWO things does the speaker mention about the famous poem?

A name of the poet.

B Itwas written in the woods.

C It has two lines in a stanza.

D It has many emotions.

E It uses a particular figure of speech.

Questions 1-6

 

Questions 1 and 2

Choose TWO letters. A - E.

What TWO features of the rhyme scheme does the speaker mention?

Alt is a repetition of each line.

B It is not a common method.

C it includes rhyming alphabets.

Answer:D It includes rhyming sounds.

Answer:E it may be altered within a poem.

 

Questions 3 and 4

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

What TWO features of a figure of speech does the speaker mention?

A lt is a wordy description.

B It is an imaginary word.

Answer:C it is a word or a phrase.

Answer:D It can have a different meaning.

E It uses the literal meaning.

 

Questions 5 and 6

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

What TWO things does the speaker mention about the famous poem?

Answer:A name of the poet.

B Itwas written in the woods.

C It has two lines in a stanza.

D It has many emotions.

Answer:E It uses a particular figure of speech.


Questions 1-7

 

Questions 1 – 3

Choose THREE letters. A – G

What THREE distinct features does the speaker mention about Nairobi National Park?

A lt is the only wildlife park in Nairobi.

B It is spread over 7 km.

Citis 7 km away from the city.

D It is the smallest park in Africa

E it is the oldest park in Kenya.

F It is home to the big five.

G It does not have elephants.

 

Questions 4 and 5

Choose TWO letters, A – E.

Which TWO things does the speaker give a warning about?

A risky encounters

B photography

Cvideo shooting

D poaching

E quiet animals

 

Questions 6 and 7

Choose TWO letters. A – E.

Which TWO activities can be done by visitors at the Hut Resort?

A serve meals

B charity

C musical performance

D feed leopard cubs

E five-day walking trail

Questions 1 - 3

Choose THREE letters. A - G

What THREE distinct features does the speaker mention about Nairobi National Park?

A lt is the only wildlife park in Nairobi.

B It is spread over 7 km.

Answer:C it is 7 km away from the city.

D It is the smallest park in Africa

Answer:E it is the oldest park in Kenya.

F It is home to the big five.

Answer:G It does not have elephants.

 

Questions 4 and 5

Choose TWO letters, A - E.

Which TWO things does the speaker give a warning about?

Answer:A risky encounters

B photography

Cvideo shooting

Answer:D poaching

E quiet animals

 

Questions 6 and 7

Choose TWO letters. A - E.

Which TWO activities can be done by visitors at the Hut Resort?

A serve meals

Answer:B charity

Answer:C musical performance

D feed leopard cubs

E five-day walking trail